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To be eligible for the CISA certification, candidates must have a minimum of five years of professional experience in information systems auditing, control, or security. However, candidates who have a bachelor's or master's degree in a related field can substitute up to three years of experience. Once the certification is obtained, professionals are required to maintain their knowledge and skills through continuing education and professional development activities. Overall, the CISA certification offers a challenging and rewarding career path for IT professionals who are passionate about information systems audit and security.
The Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) exam is a professional certification exam that is designed to evaluate an individual's ability to assess, control, and monitor information systems. CISA exam is developed and administered by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), which is a global professional organization that provides education and certification programs for information systems professionals. The CISA certification is widely recognized as the gold standard in the field of information systems auditing, and is highly sought after by employers as a way to demonstrate an individual's expertise and competence in the field.
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following findings would be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management process?
- A. Applications frequently need to be rebooted for patches to take effect.
- B. The organization's software inventory is not complete.
- C. Software vendors are bundling patches.
- D. Testing patches takes significant time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The organization's software inventory is not complete. This finding would be of greatest concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management process because:
A software inventory is a list of all the software assets that an organization owns, uses, or manages. A software inventory is essential for effective patch management, as it helps identify the software that needs to be updated, the patches that are available, and the dependencies and compatibility issues that may arise. Without a complete software inventory, an organization may miss some critical patches, expose itself to security risks, and waste resources on unnecessary or redundant patches.
Applications frequently need to be rebooted for patches to take effect. This finding would be of moderate concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management process because:
Rebooting applications for patches to take effect is a common and expected practice in some cases, especially for operating system or kernel patches. However, frequent reboots may indicate that the organization is not applying patches in a timely or efficient manner, or that the patches are not well-designed or tested. Frequent reboots may also cause disruption to the business operations and user experience, and increase the risk of data loss or corruption.
Software vendors are bundling patches. This finding would be of low concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management process because:
Bundling patches is a practice where software vendors combine multiple patches into a single package or update. Bundling patches can have some advantages, such as reducing the number of downloads and installations, simplifying the patch management process, and ensuring consistency and compatibility among patches. However, bundling patches can also have some disadvantages, such as increasing the size and complexity of the updates, delaying the delivery of critical patches, and introducing new bugs or vulnerabilities.
Testing patches takes significant time. This finding would be of low concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management process because:
Testing patches is a vital step in the patch management process, as it helps ensure that the patches are functional, secure, and compatible with the existing software and hardware environment.
Testing patches can take significant time, depending on the scope, complexity, and frequency of the patches. However, testing patches is a necessary investment to avoid potential problems or failures that could result from applying untested or faulty patches.
References:
Best practices for patch management
Server Patch Management: Best Practices and Tools
11 Key Steps of the Patch Management Process
NEW QUESTION # 135
The PRIMARY purpose of implementing Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID) level 1 in a file
server is to:
- A. achieve performance improvement.
- B. provide user authentication.
- C. ensure availability of data.
- D. ensure the confidentiality of data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
RAID level 1 provides disk mirroring. Data written to one disk are also written to another disk. Users in the
network access data in the first disk; if disk one fails, the second disk takes over. This redundancy ensures
the availability of data. RAID level 1 does not improve performance, has no relevance to authentication and
does nothing to provide for data confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following should an IS auditor review FIRST when planning a customer data privacy audit?
- A. Customer agreements
- B. Legal and compliance requirements
- C. Organizational policies and procedures
- D. Data classification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
NEW QUESTION # 137
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to verify during a disaster recovery audit?
- A. Regular backups are made and stored offsite.
- B. Roles and responsibilities are documented.
- C. The disaster recovery plan (DRP) is updated on a regular basis.
- D. Tabletop disaster recovery tests are conducted.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which type of control is an IS auditor assessing when reviewing the adequacy of existing policies and procedures related to end-user computing activities?
- A. Detective control
- B. Directive control
- C. Preventive control
- D. Corrective control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 139
.What must an IS auditor understand before performing an application audit? Choose the BEST answer.
- A. Application risks must first be identified.
- B. The potential business impact of application risks.
- C. Relevant application risks.
- D. Relative business processes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An IS auditor must first understand relative business processes before performing an application audit.
NEW QUESTION # 140
Users are issued security tokens to be used in combination with a PIN to access the corporate virtual private network (VPN). Regarding the PIN, what is the MOST important rule to be included in a security policy?
- A. Users must never keep the token in the same bag as their laptop computer
- B. Users should never write down their PIN
- C. Users should not leave tokens where they could be stolen
- D. Users should select a PIN that is completely random, with no repeating digits
Answer: B
Explanation:
If a user writes their PIN on a slip of paper, an individual with the token, the slip of paper, and the computer could access the corporate network. A token and the PIN is a two-factor authentication method. Access to the token is of no value with out the PIN; one cannot work without the other. The PIN does not need to be random as long as it is secret.
NEW QUESTION # 141
A manufacturing firm wants to automate its invoice payment system. Objectives state that the system should require considerably less time for review and authorization and the system should be capable of identifying errors that require follow up. Which of the following would BEST meet these objectives?
- A. Outsourcing the function to a firm specializing in automated payments and accounts receivable/invoice processing
- B. Reengineering the existing processing and redesigning the existing system
- C. Establishing an inter-networked system of client servers with suppliers for increased efficiencies
- D. Establishing an EDI system of electronic business documents and transactions with key suppliers, computer to computer, in a standard format
Answer: D
Explanation:
EDI is the best answer. Properly implemented (e.g., agreements with trading partners transaction standards, controls over network security mechanisms in conjunction with application controls), EDI is best suited to identify and follow up on errors more quickly, given reduced opportunities for review and authorization.
NEW QUESTION # 142
Which of the following reduces the potential impact of social engineering attacks?
- A. Compliance with regulatory requirements
- B. Promoting ethical understanding
- C. Security awareness programs
- D. Effective performance incentives
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because social engineering is based on deception of the user, the best countermeasure or defense is a security awareness program. The other choices are not user-focused.
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) solution?
- A. The SIEM is decentralized.
- B. SIEM reporting is customized.
- C. SIEM configuration is reviewed annually.
- D. SIEM reporting is ad hoc.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A decentralized SIEM can lead to gaps in monitoring and increased complexity in managing security events. This can result in a higher risk of security incidents going undetected or not being properly addressed. Therefore, a decentralized SIEM would be of greatest concern when reviewing an organization's security information and event management solution.
NEW QUESTION # 144
When testing the adequacy of tape backup procedures, which step BEST verifies that regularly scheduled backups are timely and run to completion?
- A. Reviewing a sample of system-generated backup logs
- B. Interviewing key personnel involved in the backup process
- C. Observing the execution of a daily backup run
- D. Evaluating the backup policies and procedures
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 145
During a review of IT service desk practices, an IS auditor notes that help desk personnel are spending more time fulfilling user requests (or password resets than resolving critical incidents. Which of the following recommendations to IT management would BEST address this situation?
- A. Calculate the age of incident tickets and alert senior IT personnel when they exceed service level agreements (SLAs).
- B. Provide annual password management training to end users to reduce the number of instances requiring password resets.
- C. Implement a self-service solution and redirect users to access frequently requested services.
- D. Incentivize service desk personnel to close incidents within agreed service levels.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 146
A data center's physical access log system captures each visitor's identification document numbers along with the visitor's photo. Which of the following sampling methods would be MOST useful to an IS auditor conducting compliance testing for the effectiveness of the system?
- A. Quota sampling
- B. Attribute sampling
- C. Haphazard sampling
- D. Variable sampling
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the following is an example of a preventive control for physical access?
- A. Keeping log entries for all visitors to the building
- B. Implementing a fingerprint-based access control system for the building
- C. Implementing a centralized logging server to record instances of staff logging into workstations
- D. Installing closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras for all ingress and egress points
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following is MOST important for the successful establishment of a security vulnerability management program?
- A. A comprehensive asset inventory
- B. A tested incident response plan
- C. An approved patching policy
- D. A robust tabletop exercise plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which of the following is the MOST important element for the successful implementation of IT governance?
- A. Identifying organizational strategies
- B. Creating a formal security policy
- C. Implementing an IT scorecard
- D. Performing a risk assessment
Answer: A
Explanation:
The key objective of an IT governance program is to support the business, thus the identification of organizational strategies is necessary to ensure alignment between IT and corporate governance. Without identification of organizational strategies,the remaining choices-even if implemented-would be ineffective.
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which of the following would provide an IS auditor with the GREATEST assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives?
- A. Media shredding policy
- B. Media sanitization policy
- C. Media labeling policy
- D. Media recycling policy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 151
When classifying information, it is MOST important to align the classification to:
- A. security policy
- B. industry standards
- C. business risk
- D. data retention requirements
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
When classifying information, it is most important to align the classification to business risk, because it ensures that the information is protected according to its value and impact to the organization34. Business risk considers factors such as legal, regulatory, contractual, operational, reputational, and financial implications of information disclosure or compromise34. Aligning information classification to business risk also helps to prioritize and allocate resources for information security measures. Security policy, data retention requirements, and industry standards are important considerations for information classification, but not as important as business risk. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2 4:
CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4
NEW QUESTION # 152
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